Fundamental IT Engineer Examination (Morning) Apr 2017

Fundamental IT Engineer Examination (Morning) Apr 2017

情報処理技術者試験 / ITPEC アジア共通統一試験

Fundamental IT Engineer Examination (Morning) Apr 2017

– 1 –

April 2017


Fundamental IT Engineer Examination (Morning)

Questions must be answered in accordance with the following:

Question Nos. Q1 - Q80

Question Selection All questions are compulsory.

Examination Time 9:30 - 12:00 (150 minutes)


1. Use a pencil. If you need to change an answer, erase your previous answer completely

and neatly. Wipe away any eraser debris.

2. Mark your examinee information and your answers in accordance with the instructions

below. Your answer will not be graded if you do not mark properly. Do not mark nor

write on the answer sheet outside of the prescribed places.

(1) Examinee Number

Write your examinee number in the space provided, and mark the appropriate space

below each digit.

(2) Date of Birth

Write your date of birth (in numbers) exactly as it is printed on your examination

admission card, and mark the appropriate space below each digit.

(3) Answers

Select one answer (a through d) for each question.

Mark your answers as shown in the following sample question.

[Sample Question]

Q1. In which month is the spring Fundamental IT Engineer Examination conducted?

a) March b) April c) May d) June

Since the correct answer is “b)” (April), mark your answer sheet as follows:

[Sample Answer]


Do not open the exam booklet until instructed to do so.

Inquiries about the exam questions will not be answered.

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Symbols commonly used in questions

Unless otherwise noted in each question, the following notational conventions are applied as

shown in the tables.

I. Standards


in the exam questions Name of the standard

ISO 9001 ISO 9001:2008

ISO 14001 ISO 14001:2004

ISO/IEC 20000-1 ISO/IEC 20000-1:2011

ISO/IEC 20000-2 ISO/IEC 20000-2:2012

ISO/IEC 25010 ISO/IEC25010:2011

ISO/IEC 27001 ISO/IEC 27001:2005

ISO/IEC 27002 ISO/IEC 27002:2013

ISO/IEC 12207 ISO/IEC 12207:2008

ISO 21500 ISO 21500:2012

ITIL ITIL 2011 edition

PMBOK PMBOK Guide – Fifth Edition

– 3 –

II. Logic Circuit

Graphic symbol Explanation

AND gate

NAND gate

OR gate

NOR gate

Exclusive OR (XOR) gate

Exclusive NOR gate


NOT gate

Three-state buffer (or tri-state buffer)

Note: A small circle or “bubble” on either the input or the output

terminal shows inversion or negation of the logic state.

Company names or product names mentioned in the examination questions are the trademarks or

registered trademarks of their respective companies or organizations. The symbol ® or ™ is not used


– 4 –

Q1. For an 8-bit binary number, which of the following sets the middle 4 bits to 1s while

inverting the remaining bits?

a) Performing a bitwise AND operation with 00111100

b) Performing a bitwise NAND operation with 11000011

c) Performing a bitwise OR operation with 11000011

d) Performing a bitwise XOR operation with 00111100

Q2. Which of the following is logically equivalent to the expression below? Here A, B, C, and

D are integers, ‘<’ is a less-than operator, and ‘≤’ is a less-than-or-equal-to operator.

not *1

a) (A < B) and (C ≤ D) b) (A < B) or (C ≤ D)

c) (B < A) and (D ≤ C) d) (B < A) or (D ≤ C)

Q3. There are 16 cards numbered from 1 to 16. When four cards are randomly chosen at the

same time, what is the probability that all of them are even?

a) b) c) d)

Q4. For two sets A and B of cardinalities 3 and 2, how many maps from A to B exist?

a) 1 b) 5 c) 8 d) 9

Q5. The expression shown below is written in postfix (reverse Polish) notation. What is the

value of this expression? Here, the numbers are in decimal, and the symbols ‘+’, ‘−’, ‘*’, and

‘/’ represent addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division operators.

100 5 6 2 + * 12 4 / − − 36 −

a) 18 b) 21 c) 27 d) 5









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Q6. In the binary tree shown below, where is the position for a new node of value 17? Here,

each circle represents a node of the tree and the number in the circle represents its value.


5 16


18 23

3 12

10 13



a) Left child of 16 b) Left child of 18

c) Right child of 13 d) Right child of 3

Q7. Which of the following is the output of the flowchart below?

a) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

b) 0 2 4 6 8 10

c) 10 8 6 4 2 0

d) 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 0

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Q8. For a two-dimensional integer array a, whose element a (i, j) is of value 2i + j, what is the

value a(a(1,1) × 2, a ( 2, 2) + 1)?

a) 12 b) 13 c) 18 d) 19

Q9. A recursive function f (n) is defined as follows for any natural number n. What is the value

f (5)?

a) 6 b) 9 c) 15 d) 25

Q10. Which of the following is the addressing mode where the instruction contains the

address and the address is modified by a value from another register?

a) Direct addressing mode b) Indexed addressing mode

c) Memory indirect addressing mode d) Register indirect addressing mode

Q11. Which of the following is the computer architecture where processors execute multiple

instruction streams on multiple data streams in parallel?


Q12. Which of the following is an appropriate explanation of memory interleaving?

a) It allows CPU to access different banks of the main memory simultaneously.

b) It improves CPU performance by connecting I/O interface directly to the main memory.

c) It makes use of a fast memory between the CPU and the main memory, which serves as

a buffer for frequently accessed data.

d) It widens the data bus to read or write several bytes between the CPU and the main

memory in a single process.

Q13. Which of the following is an appropriate role for a device driver?

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a) It decides the next task to be executed from tasks waiting for execution.

b) It directly controls hardware according to requests from an application program.

c) It interprets command strings that are entered by the user, and starts the applicable


d) It manages the display status on the screen in multiple windows.

Q14. Which of the following is an appropriate term to describe the phenomenon when files

produced in the process of saving are scattered to different parts of the whole hard disk

rather than in continuous clusters?

a) Contiguity b) Fragmentation c) Sector d) Segmentation

Q15. Which of the following is the most appropriate explanation of grid computing?

a) A computing task is distributed to several computers in the network to attain the

computational capacity.

b) Physical devices such as computers or network devices are emulated to circumvent

compatibility constraints and attain software portability and flexibility.

c) Requirements are stated as constraints on response time and/or on the temporal validity

of sensory data.

d) Sensing devices are connected to a network to provide feedback and control through

personal mobile devices.

Q16. Consider a RAID 0 (i.e., block-level striping without parity or mirroring) system with

two disks; when data is distributed evenly across the two disks and both disks have a failure

rate of 0.1%, what is the overall failure rate (as a percentage) of this RAID system? Here,

the overall failure rate refers to the probability that the system fails to obtain data from either

of the disks.

a) 0.0001 b) 0.0100 c) 0.1999 d) 1.9990

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Q17. Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning MTBF and MTTR?

a) MTBF of a system decreases and MTTR of a system increases through remote


b) MTBF of a system increases as the number of device types that constitutes the system


c) MTBF of a system increases through preventive maintenance.

d) MTTR increases because of functions such as an error log or an instruction trace.

Q18. Round robin (with a time allocation of 3 seconds) is used as a scheduling method for

three processes in the order of P1, P2, and P3, shown in the table below. What is the total

waiting time (in seconds) of P3 that elapses before its execution completes? Here, the arrival

time is the time at which a process joins the ready queue.

Unit: seconds

Process Execution time Arrival time

P1 24 0

P2 15 10

P3 12 13

a) 35 b) 38 c) 45 d) 48

Q19. In virtual memory management, which of the following page replacement methods

replaces the page for which the most time has passed since it was last used?

a) FIFO b) LFU c) LIFO d) LRU

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Q20. The methods for representing the results of syntactic analysis in a compiler include

quadruplet format.

(Operator, Operand 1, Operand 2, Result)

This format indicates that the application of the operator to operand 1 and operand 2

outputs the result. For which of the following expressions does the series of quadruplets

below represent the syntactic analysis? Here, T1, T2, and T3 indicate temporary variables.

(*,B,C,T1 )

(/,T1 ,D,T2 )

(+,A,T2 ,T3 )

a) A+B*C/D b) A+B*C/T2

c) B*C+A/D d) B*C+T1/D

Q21. ABC company applies a three-generation backup policy. The ABC company’s system

automatically performs full back up on the 10th, 17th, and 25th of each month. If the latest

back up was performed on 17th September, what is the date that the oldest information was

backed up?

a) 17th August b) 25th August c) 10th September d) 17th September

Q22. Which of the following is a method that performs integration of the modules that

configure a program during execution of the program?

a) Dynamic linking b) Interpreter

c) Overlay d) Static linking

Q23. Which of the following is a characteristic of DRAM?

a) Even if the power supply is cut, it can retain stored data.

b) Memory refresh to retain stored data is not necessary.

c) The memory cell structure is simple, so high integration is possible and a low price per

bit can be achieved.

d) Writing and erasing data are performed in blocks or in a whole chip.

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Q24. Which of the following is the logical circuit that generates “1” as the output signal Z,

only when the input signals X and Y have the same value?

















Q25. Which of the following logic circuits meets the condition described below?


A light is turned on and off by using switches A and B located at the top and bottom of

the stairs. The light can be turned on and off by using one switch, regardless of the status

of the other switch.

a) AND b) NAND c) NOR d) XOR

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Q26. Which of the following is an appropriate explanation of clipping in 3D graphics


a) It is a method to selectively enable or disable rendering operations within a defined

region of interest.

b) It is a process of altering the colors of an object based on the angle of the surface to the

light sources to produce a photorealistic effect.

c) It is a technique to reduce the prominence of jaggies by surrounding the stair steps of

edge lines with intermediate colors.

d) It is the last phase of CG production to render the object data to be visualized on the


Q27. Which of the following is a database design that consists of multiple tables, with rows and

columns that are linked together through matching data stored in each table?

a) Hierarchical database b) Network database

c) Object-oriented database d) Relational database

Q28. Which of the following is an appropriate explanation of schema in RDBMS?

a) It is a collective term for database operations, such as insert, update, deletion, and

selection of data.

b) It is a collective term for various constraints for maintaining consistency of the database.

c) It is a set of data definitions, such as the nature of data, the format of data, and the

relation with other data.

d) It is not a real table, but a virtual table from the users’ viewpoint.

Q29. Which of the following is an appropriate normalization form (NF) used in a relational

database in which every non-prime attribute must be dependent only on the primary key, and

no non-prime attribute is dependent on another non-prime attribute?

a) 1NF b) 2NF c) 3NF d) BCNF

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Q30. Among the phases of database design, which of the following phases involves the

creation of an ER diagram?

a) Conceptual design of databases phase

b) Distributed design of databases phase

c) Logical design of databases phase

d) Physical design of databases phase

Q31. Which of the following SQL statements for the table “ShipmentRecord” obtains the

largest value?


ProductNumber Date Quantity

NP200 2015-10-10 3

FP233 2015-10-10 2

NP200 2015-10-11 1

FP233 2015-10-11 2

a) SELECT AVG(Quantity) FROM ShipmentRecord WHERE ProductNumber = 'NP200'

b) SELECT COUNT(*) FROM ShipmentRecord

c) SELECT MAX(Quantity) FROM ShipmentRecord

d) SELECT SUM(Quantity) FROM ShipmentRecord WHERE Date = '2015-10-11'

Q32. Which of the following is a routable IP address in the Internet?

a) b)

c) d)

Q33. Among the seven layers of the OSI basic reference model, which layer is responsible

for forwarding packets, including routing them through intermediate routers?

a) The data link layer b) The network layer

c) The session layer d) The transport layer

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Q34. In an IPv4 network, which of the following is the correct combination of an IP address

class, its IP address range, and a subnet mask?

class range subnet mask

a) class A ~

b) class B ~

c) class C ~

d) class D ~

Q35. Which of the following is an Internet service that translates a domain name such as into its corresponding IP address?

a) ARP b) DNS c) RARP d) TCP

Q36. Which of the following is an appropriate description of the netstat utility?

a) It displays active TCP connections.

b) It displays the contents of the DNS resolver cache.

c) It displays the mapping between IP addresses and corresponding MAC addresses in the


d) It displays the route path to the specified destination and measures the packet delays.

Q37. Alan would like to send an encrypted message to Bob using an asynchronous

encryption scheme. Which of the following must occur before Alan sends the encrypted

message to Bob? Here, Alan has already proven to Bob with the digital signature that Alan

is the person who sends the message to Bob.

a) Alan provides his private key to Bob.

b) Alan provides his public key to Bob.

c) Bob provides his private key to Alan.

d) Bob provides his public key to Alan.

– 14 –

Q38. Which of the following is an appropriate term associated with the fraudulent action of

impersonating an authorized person?

a) Destruction b) Falsification c) Spoofing d) Tapping

Q39. An attacker calls a corporate help desk, masquerading as an employee who has lost

their password. The help desk staff resets the password to the company default "password1."

The attacker then uses this password to access the company network and information in the

server. What is this type of attack called?

a) Buffer overflow attack b) Denial-of-Service attack

c) Shoulder surfing d) Social engineering

Q40. A man-in-the-middle attack happens when an attacker intercepts communication and

spoofs the identities of either of the two parties involved. How can such an attack be

effectively countered?

a) Such an attack can be countered by a cyclic redundancy check (CRC).

b) Such an attack can be countered by having an authentication through a digital signature

before accepting someone's public key.

c) Such an attack can be countered by using a parity bit.

d) Such an attack can be countered by using hashing algorithms.

Q41. Bob and Alice encrypt all of their communications with each other. Because of the high

level of sensitivity of the information they are sharing, they have implemented a

cryptographic mechanism that offers secrecy to their messages. However, the trade-off of

this encryption is that it is impossible for Bob or Alice to be 100% sure that they are

communicating with each other, nor can they be 100% certain of the integrity of the content

of the messages. Which of the following types of encryption methods are Bob and Alice


a) AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) b) DES (Data Encryption Standard)

c) One-time pad d) Stream cipher

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Q42. A user has just received a file named “image.jpg.” When inspected more closely, it is

revealed that the file name is actually “image.jpg .exe,” with spaces

between the fake .jpg suffix and the real .exe suffix. Which of the following is the most

appropriate term used to describe this type of attack?

a) Backdoor b) Trojan horse c) Virus hoax d) Worm

Q43. A data backup system must support restoring all transactions until 5 minutes before a

disaster happens. What type of goal is this?

a) Maximum tolerable downtime b) Recovery point objective

c) Recovery time objective d) Service level agreement

Q44. Which of the following is an appropriate test to verify the efficacy of security measures

by attempting an actual intrusion?

a) Exception test b) Functional test

c) Penetration test d) Stress test

Q45. Which of the following is an appropriate method to prevent a buffer overflow attack?

a) Performing input filtering and removing browser scripts from all user input on web


b) Performing input filtering and removing structural query language commands from all

user input

c) Performing the boundary check on all integer variables in the program to confirm that

the resulting value from each calculation does not exceed the limit of its destination


d) Performing the boundary check on all string variables in the program to confirm that the

length of the input string does not exceed the size of the designated variable

– 16 –

Q46. Companies usually provide a means for their mobile workforce to access the corporate

network securely over the Internet through insecure channels such as open wireless networks

in hotels or coffee shops. Which of the following is the appropriate technology that can be

used for this purpose?

a) DMZ (DeMilitarized Zone)

b) SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)

c) VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol)

d) VPN (Virtual Private Network)

Q47. Which of the following are components of a UML2.x (including 2.0 and later versions)

state diagram?

a) Message and Activity b) Message and Transition

c) State and Message d) State and Transition

Q48. As shown in the list below, there are three types of coupling. Which of the following

is the most appropriate combination of the type of coupling?

Coupling A: One module passes an element of control to the other module.

Coupling B: One module passes the data structure as a parameter to the other module.

Coupling C: Two modules have access to the same global data.

Coupling A Coupling B Coupling C

a) Content coupling Data coupling Common coupling

b) Content coupling Stamp coupling External coupling

c) Control coupling Data coupling External coupling

d) Control coupling Stamp coupling Common coupling

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Q49. Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning test data for the black

box testing?

a) Test data is created based on branch coverage.

b) Test data is created based on condition coverage.

c) Test data is created based on external specification.

d) Test data is created based on program structure.

Q50. When a software component is tested, which of the following is an appropriate

combinations of X and Y ?

X : It calls the software component to be tested.

Y : It is called from the software component to be tested.

Q51. According to the Capability Maturity Model Integration, which is the final stage and

has the highest level of maturity?

a) Auditable b) Custom c) Optimized d) Quantitative

Q52. According to PMBOK, which of the following combinations of processes pertains to

project integration management?

A. Control costs

B. Develop project charter

C. Direct and manage project work

D. Identify risks

E. Manage communications

F. Perform integrated change control

a) A, B, E b) B, C, E c) B, C, F d) C, D, F


a) component unit

b) driver stub

c) stub driver

d) unit component

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Q53. According to PMBOK, which of the following is an appropriate explanation concerning

the scope creep in project scope management?

a) A hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the project

team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables.

b) Any change to the project scope. It almost always requires an adjustment to the project

cost or schedule.

c) The sum of the products, services, and results to be provided as a project.

d) The uncontrolled expansion to product or project scope without adjustments to time,

cost, and resources.

Q54. As shown in the arrow diagram below, there is a project consisting of eight activities A

through G. Which of the following is the appropriate combination of the earliest finish time

(EFT) and latest start time (LST) of activity G?


a) 30 60

b) 30 80

c) 50 60

d) 50 80

– 19 –

Q55. According to EVM (Earned Value Management), the budget of a software development

project is $10,000 and the project duration is planned for 10 weeks. After 4 weeks, it is

revealed that only 30% of the work has been completed against a cost of $4,200. What is the

cost performance index?

a) 0.126 b) 0.300 c) 0.420 d) 0.714

Q56. According to the ISO/IEC 20000-1, which of the following is a service delivery process

that the service provider shall agree the services to be delivered and shall agree a catalogue

of services with the customer?

a) Capacity management

b) Information security management

c) Service continuity and availability management

d) Service level management

Q57. According to ITIL, which of the following is an activity or process in the Service


a) Assessing the IT recovery options of the new IT infrastructure considering the business

risks and cost to the project

b) Classifying events once it is detected and communicating specific information to

corresponding groups as an immediate action

c) Defining the reliability and service life of the IT infrastructure considering projected

growth in the service

d) Implementing multiple strategies such as web seminars, newsletters, and visualization in

transferring knowledge

– 20 –

Q58. Which of the following is an appropriate description of the relationship between a

record of an incident and a record of a problem in IT service management?

a) If known errors have been specified at the time of ending the record of the problem, the

record of the incident that acts as the beginning of the record of the problem is deleted.

b) One (1) record of a problem is always associated with one (1) record of an incident.

c) Problems are classified and recorded by a different criterion from the classification of


d) The cross-referenced information of the incident that acts as the beginning of the record

of the problem is included in the record of the problem.

Q59. Which of the following is an appropriate activity that is undertaken by a system auditor

who audits access control?

a) Confirmation of the management status of access control concerning data

b) Creation and storage of a management table for access control concerning software

c) Establishment of a management policy for access control concerning the network

d) Implementation of operations for access control concerning hardware

Q60. Which of the following is a checkpoint during audit of a control for reducing the risk of

system trouble during the application of a software patch?

a) A database administrator is appointed, and the management procedures of master data

are specified.

b) A hardware management ledger is created, which is managed by system administrators.

c) System operation is properly checked before commencing full-time operations.

d) The procedures of capacity planning are specified.

– 21 –



When data sheets issued by a business operations department are entered

in a system in an information system department, which of the following

is an appropriate task executed by the information system department?

a) The data sheets are retained in the information system department

until the due date for processing, and confirmation including a check

of the number of sheets received is performed for all sheets collectively

just before the due date.

b) To enable the business operations department to check the processing

results of each data sheet, the processing results list is sent to the

business operations department.

c) To prevent unauthorized use or leakage of confidential information, data

sheets are disposed of immediately after completion of data entry.

d) When the data sheet contains an error, and only when the error is obvious,

the data sheet is corrected and an entry is made at the judgment of only

the person in charge of data entry.



Fundamental IT Engineer Examination (Morning) Apr 2017 Q62.

Google 翻訳(一部訂正)














Which of the following is an appropriate feasibility evaluation when

checking whether the lifetime benefits of the proposed information system

is greater than its lifetime costs?

a) Economic feasibility

b) Operational feasibility

c) Scheduling feasibility

d) Technical feasibility



Fundamental IT Engineer Examination (Morning) Apr 2017 Q62.

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Which of the following is a usage scenario for the adoption of UML as

a technique for visualizing business processes?

a) Diagrams are shown by using a data-oriented approach where objects

are handled as entities, their attributes, and the relationships among

the entities.

b) To represent processes by using data flows, sources and sinks of data,

data stores, and data processes are connected with arrows that indicate

data flow.

c) To represent processes from multiple viewpoints, some purpose-specific

modeling methods are used, and each model is depicted by using standardized

notation rules for object modeling.

d) To thoroughly represent the functions of a process, the events that

occur in response to a single request are described by using the conditional

branch format.



Fundamental IT Engineer Examination (Morning) Apr 2017 Q63.

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Among the “four categories” of the enterprise architecture, which of

the following completes the list after business architecture, technology

architecture, and application architecture?

a) Bus architecture

b) Data architecture

c) Software architecture

d) System architecture



Fundamental IT Engineer Examination (Morning) Apr 2017 Q67.

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Which of the following is an appropriate explanation of EMS?

a) It refers to acting as the customer service desk for responding by

telephone to consumer electronics-related inquiries from general


b) It refers to planning, design, and development of products without

owning manufacturing facilities.

c) It refers to the contract production of electronic devices, etc.

ordered by other manufacturers.

d) It refers to the dedicated selling of electronic devices, etc.

purchased from other manufacturers.



Fundamental IT Engineer Examination (Morning) Apr 2017 Q67.

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Which of the following is an explanation of green procurement?

a) It refers not only to the fulfillment of the requirements of quality

and price, but also to the preferential purchase of products and services

that exert a lower environmental burden from companies working towards

a reduction in environmental burden.

b) It refers to a certificate that enables commercial trading of the green

power generated from natural energy such as sunlight, biomass, wind power,

and geothermal heat.

c) It refers to international standards concerning environmental labels

such as eco marks that are qualified by a third party based on a certain


d) It refers to mass promotion of the details of environmental protection

activities, and the raising of funds from investors.



Fundamental IT Engineer Examination (Morning) Apr 2017 Q67.

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Which of the following is an appropriate description of an RFI?

a) It is a document describing the basic policy for the system,

including a summary of the system, the purpose, the necessary functions,

the system requirements, and contract matters.

b) It is a document that is created after an RFP.

c) It is a document used by companies looking for implementation of

computerization to request specific system proposals from prospective

suppliers such as system vendors.

d) It is a document used to request information concerning computerization

from prospective suppliers such as system vendors.



Fundamental IT Engineer Examination (Morning) Apr 2017 Q67.

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Companies are classified based on their competitive position in the

market. There are typically four types: leader, challenger, follower,

and nicher. Which of the following is an appropriate characteristic of the

strategy of a leader?

a) A full frontal matching attack against the competitor’s product,

advertising, price and distribution, or indirect attack on the competitor’s

weaknesses or on gaps in the competitor’s market coverage

b) Capturing a specific market that is not targeted by a high-ranking

company and concentrating management resources for securing and maintaining

the predominance in the market

c) Determining the real ability of the challenger company in the market,

and giving priority for securing stable profits rather than expanding the

market share by doing as the leader company does

d) Proposing a new product and its usage method to the consumer to expand

the total demand while maintaining or expanding the market share



Fundamental IT Engineer Examination (Morning) Apr 2017 Q68.

Google 翻訳(一部訂正)

 企業は市場における競争上の地位に基づいて分類される。 典型的には、リーダー、

チャレンジャー、フォロワー、そしてより魅力的な4つのタイプがあります。 次のう











Which of the following is a marketing technique to create demands from

consumers by using advertisements that improve the brand image of a company

or a product?

a) Direct marketing

b) Relationship marketing

c) Pull strategy

d) Push strategy



Fundamental IT Engineer Examination (Morning) Apr 2017 Q69.

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PEST analysis is used for analyzing the external environment in determining

a business strategy. What are the external environmental factors the PEST

analysis analyzes?

a) Politics, Economics, Society, Technology

b) Politics, Enterprises, Society, Time

c) Price, Economics, Satisfaction, Technology

d) Price, Enterprises, Safety, Time



Fundamental IT Engineer Examination (Morning) Apr 2017 Q70.

Google 翻訳(一部訂正)


使用されます。 PEST分析で分析される外部環境要因は何ですか?






Which of the following is an explanation of the IoT (Internet of Things)?

a) It refers to a form of electronic commerce carried out over the Internet,

consisting of a typical C to C transaction by which a seller posts a product’s

name, photo, minimum selling price, and other information on a website,

after which the bidder that offers the highest amount within the time

limit becomes the successful bidder.

b) It refers to data centers designed for the connection to the Internet,

with server operation failure prevented through the implementation of

measures including quality management of communication lines, server

maintenance, air conditioning, and power source-relatedcountermeasures

against power interruptions and outages.

c) It refers to Internet advertising such as a banner advertisement that

displays an image, with a link to an advertiser’s website, or an e-mail

advertisement that publicizes an advertiser’s website.

d) It refers to the installation of communication functionality to various

objects, in addition to information and communication devices, and enabling

automatic recognition or remote measurement by connecting these to the

Internet, to achieve high-level decision-making services and automated

control through the collection and analysis of large volumes of data.



Fundamental IT Engineer Examination (Morning) Apr 2017 Q71.

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次のうちIoTInternet of Things)の説明はどれですか?















Which of the following is an explanation of benchmarking used for corporate


a) It refers to a qualitative and quantitative understanding of a company's

own products, services, and operation through comparison with those

of competitors or advanced companies.

b) It refers to drastically reforming the quality and structure of a company

by redesigning its business processes from a customer viewpoint and

by taking full advantage of information technology.

c) It refers to the ability to plan and manage the allocation of company-wide

management resources in an effective and integrated manner and to

achieve an improvement in management efficiency.

d) It refers to the concentration of management resources on the unique

skills and technologies of a company that can generate profit and that

are superior to those of other companies.



Fundamental IT Engineer Examination (Morning) Apr 2017 Q72.

Google 翻訳(一部訂正)










Which of the following is an explanation of the long tail?

a) Generally known as the 80:20 empirical rule, the name derives from the

phenomenon by which 80% of a company’s sales are accounted for by the

best-selling 20% of its products, or by which 80% of a company’s losses due

to quality defects are accounted for by the top 20% of all causes of defects.

b) If “value of networkis determined as the usefulness of the mutual access

by the subscribers of the network,” then the value of the network is

approximately proportional to the square of the number of users.

c) It enables a company to share the management resources through conducting

multiple business activities simultaneously, and through the effective use

of the shared resources, to relatively reduce the cost rather than conducting

each business independently.

d) It is effective in reducing the risk of opportunity loss in an online shop

that uses the Internet by lining up a broad range of items, including products

for which sales opportunities are few.



Fundamental IT Engineer Examination (Morning) Apr 2017 Q73.

Google 翻訳(一部訂正)













Which of the following performs processing a ccording to steps (1)

through (3)?

(1) Based on the types and quantities as well as the parts list of the

product planned to be manufactured in a fixed period of time in the future,

the required quantity of components is calculated.

(2) The net order quantity of each component is calculated from the amount

of inventory that can be allocated.

(3) The ordering time of the components is determined while considering the

manufacturing and procurement lead time.

a) CAD (Computer Aided Design)

b) CRP (Capacity Requirements Planning)

c) JIT (Just In Time)

d) MRP (Material Requirements Planning)



Fundamental IT Engineer Examination (Morning) Apr 2017 Q74.

Google 翻訳(一部訂正)






 a)CADComputer Aided Design)


 c)JITJust In Time)



Which of the following is the procurement process that enables suppliers

to bid against one another on the Internet to sell their products or services

under the conditions specified by a general customer?

a) B to B

b) B to C

c) Reverse auction

d) Virtual mall



Fundamental IT Engineer Examination (Morning) Apr 2017 Q75.

Google 翻訳(一部訂正)



 a)B から B

 b)B から C へ




Which of the following is a management organization that has a

characteristic of both project and functional organizations to flexibly

respond to changes in the business environment?

a) Divisional organization

b) Hierarchical organization

c) Line and staff organization

d) Matrix organization



Fundamental IT Engineer Examination (Morning) Apr 2017 Q76.

Google 翻訳(一部訂正)











Which of the following is a method of making decisions based on the

discount rate at which the net present value of the payback amount and

the investment amount are equal?

a) Internal Rate of Return method

b) Net Present Value method

c) Payback Period method

d) Return on Investment method



Fundamental IT Engineer Examination (Morning) Apr 2017 Q79.

Google 翻訳(一部訂正)








Which of the following is not protected by “copyright” that is based on

the World Trade Organization’s Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of

Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)?

a) Database

b) Free software publicly available on the Internet

c) Programming language and its conventions

d) Software operation manual



Fundamental IT Engineer Examination (Morning) Apr 2017 Q80.

Google 翻訳(一部訂正)








*1:A ≤ B) or (C < D